Kant claims that a good will is \”good without qualification\”–that it is good regardless of the results of its actions. J.S. Mill, a Utilitarian philosopher who we did not cover, seems quite opposed to this idea and focuses primarily on consequences in his moral assessments (Aristotle takes a similar stance). Who do you think is correct? Should we only consider an agent\’s intentions when making moral judgments, as Kant suggests? Or are results just as (or more) important? For example, can we praise somebody whose actions constantly fail to produce good results so long as they have good intentions? How far can we take this? What is more important in our moral assessments: intentions or consequences? Pick a side and defend.Paper Requirements: this is not a book review. main goal is to use critical thinking and to defend the philosophers position.